Description
sat practice test 5 answer
Answer Explanations For Sat Practice Test 5 Answer
Section 1: Reading Test
QUESTION 1
Choice D is the best answer. The passage begins with the main character, Lymie, sitting in a restaurant and reading a history book. The first paragraph describes the book in front of him (“Blank pages front and back were filled in with maps, drawings, dates, comic cartoons, and organs of the body,” lines 1113). The second paragraph reveals what Lymie is reading about (the Peace of Paris and the Congress of Vienna) and suggests his intense concentration on the book (“sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating,” lines 23-24). In the third paragraph, the focus of the passage shifts to a description and discussion of others in the restaurant, namely “A party of four, two men and two women . . . ” (lines 42-43).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not provide observations made by other characters, only offering Lymie’s and the narrator’s observations. Choice B is incorrect because the beginning of the passage focuses on Lymie as he reads by himself and the end of the passage focuses on the arrival of Lymie’s father, with whom Lymie’s relationship seems somewhat strained. Choice C is incorrect because the setting is described in the beginning of the first paragraph but is never the main focus of the passage.
QUESTION 2 sat practice test 5 answer
Choice C is the best answer. The main purpose of the first paragraph is to establish the passage’s setting by describing a place and an object. The place is the Alcazar Restaurant, which is described as being “long and narrow” and decorated with “art moderne,” murals, and plants (lines 2-6), and the object is the history book Lymie is reading.
Choice A is incorrect because rather than establishing what Lymie does every night, the first paragraph describes what Lymie is doing on one night. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the first paragraph indicates when the passage takes place, as the details provided (such as the restaurant and the book) are not specific to one era. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the first paragraph clearly foreshadows a later event.
QUESTION 3 sat practice test 5 answer
Choice C is the best answer. The passage states that “when Lymie put down his fork and began to count
. . . the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away” (lines 34-38). It is reasonable to assume that Irma thinks Lymie is finished eating because he is no longer holding his fork.
Choice A is incorrect because Lymie has already been reading his book while eating for some time before Irma thinks he is finished eating. Choice B is incorrect because the passage doesn’t state that Lymie’s plate is empty, and the fact that Lymie stops Irma from taking his plate suggests that it is not empty. Choice D is incorrect because the passage gives no indication that Lymie asks Irma to clear the table.
QUESTION 4
Choice A is the best answer. The passage makes it clear that Lymie finds the party of four who enter the restaurant to be loud and bothersome, as their entrance means he is no longer able to concentrate on his book: “They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for . . . and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women’s voices . . . which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them” (lines 52-59).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lines 55-59 make clear that Lymie is annoyed by the party of four, not that he finds their presence refreshing (choice B), thinks they resemble the people he is reading about (choice C), or thinks they represent glamour and youth (choice D).
QUESTION 5
Choice C is the best answer. The previous question asks about Lymie’s impression of the party of four who enter the restaurant, with the correct answer being that he finds them noisy and distracting. This is supported in lines 55-59: “But it was the women’s voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch of the women’s voices, which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about Lymie’s impression of the party of four who enter the restaurant. Rather than showing that Lymie finds the group of strangers noisy and distracting, the lines simply describe how two of the four people look (choices A and B) and indicate what Lymie does when his father joins him in the restaurant (choice D).
QUESTION 6
Choice A is the best answer. In the passage, Lymie closes his book only after “a coat that he recognized as his father’s was hung on the hook next to his chair” (lines 67-68). It is Lymie’s father’s arrival that causes him to close the book.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lines 67-70 of the passage clearly establish that Lymie closes his book because his father has arrived, not that he does so because the party of four is too loud (choice B), because he has finished reading a section of the book (choice C), or because he is getting ready to leave (choice D).
QUESTION 7
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 74-79, the narrator describes Mr. Peters as “gray” and balding, noting that he has “lost weight” and his color is “poor.” This description suggests Mr. Peters is aging and losing strength and vigor.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the description of Mr. Peters in lines 74-79 suggests he is a person who is wan and losing vitality, not someone who is healthy and in good shape (choice A), angry and intimidating (choice B), or emotionally anxious (choice C).
QUESTION 8
Choice B is the best answer. In the last paragraph of the passage, Mr. Peters is described as being unaware “that there had been any change” in his appearance since he was younger (lines 80-81). Later in the paragraph, the passage states that “the young man” Mr. Peters once was “had never for one second deserted” him (lines 90-91). The main idea of the last paragraph is that Mr. Peters still thinks of himself as young, or at least acts as if he is a younger version of himself.
Choice A is incorrect because Mr. Peters is spending time with Lymie, his son, and there is no indication that he generally does not spend time with his family. Choice C is incorrect because although there are brief mentions of a diamond ring and manicured fingers, the paragraph focuses on Mr. Peters’s overall appearance, not on his awareness of status symbols. Choice D is incorrect because the last paragraph clearly states that Mr. Peters is “not aware that there had been any change” and thinks of himself as young.
QUESTION 9
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 81-85, Mr. Peters is described as having “straightened his tie selfconsciously” and gestured with a menu “so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.” Mr. Peters’s actions are those of someone who wants to attract attention and be noticed.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the idea Mr. Peters wants to attract attention to himself. Choices A and C address Mr. Peters’s view of himself. Choice D indicates that Mr. Peters’s view of himself affects his behavior but does not reveal that he acts in a way meant to draw attention.
QUESTION 10
Choice B is the best answer. The last sentence of the passage states that Mr. Peters’s mischaracterization of himself makes him act in ways that are not “becoming” for a man of his age. In this context, “becoming” suggests behavior that is appropriate or fitting.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of describing one’s behavior, “becoming” means appropriate or fitting, not becoming known (choice A), becoming more advanced (choice C), or simply occurring (choice D).
QUESTION 11
Choice B is the best answer. In Passage 1, Beecher makes the point that even if women in her society are perceived as being inferior to men, they are still able to effect considerable influence on that society: “But while woman holds a subordinate relation in society to the other sex, it is not because it was designed that her duties or her influence should be any the less important, or all-pervading” (lines 6-10).
Choice A is incorrect because Beecher describes the dynamic between men and women in terms of the way they can change society, not in terms of security and physical safety. Choice C is incorrect because even though Beecher implies that women have fewer rights in society than men do, she doesn’t say that women have fewer responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect because Beecher does not assert that women are superior to men.
QUESTION 12
Choice A is the best answer. The previous question asks what point Beecher makes regarding the relationship between men and women in her society, with the answer being that women are considered inferior but can still have influence. This is supported in lines 6-10: “But while woman holds a subordinate relation in society to the other sex, it is not because it was designed that her duties or her influence should be any the less important, or all-pervading.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about the point Beecher makes regarding the relationship between men and women in her society. Instead, they describe ways men can affect society (choices B and C) and explain how certain actions undertaken by a woman can be viewed negatively (choice D).
QUESTION 13
Choice B is the best answer. In the third paragraph (lines 22-37), Beecher suggests that women can be
“so much respected, esteemed and loved” by those around them that men will accede to their wishes: “then, the fathers, the husbands, and the sons, will find an influence thrown around them, to which they will yield not only willingly but proudly . . . .” These lines show that Beecher believes women can influence society by influencing the men around them; in other words, women have an indirect influence on public life.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lines 34-37 make it clear that Beecher believes women do have an effect on society, even if it is an indirect effect. Beecher does not indicate that women’s effect on public life is ignored because most men are not interested (choice A), unnecessary because men do not need help governing society (choice C), or merely symbolic because women tend to be idealistic (choice D).
QUESTION 14
Choice D is the best answer. Regarding the dynamic of men and women in society, Beecher says that one sex is given “the subordinate station” while the other is given the “superior” station (lines 1-2). In the context of how one gender exists in comparison to the other, the word “station” suggests a standing or rank.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in the context of the relative standing of men and women in Beecher’s society, the word “station” suggests a standing or rank, not a physical location or area (choices A, B, and C).
QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer. When describing how men and women can influence society, Beecher says the ways they can do so “should be altogether different and peculiar” (lines 11-12). In the context of the “altogether different” ways men and women can influence society, the word “peculiar” implies being unique or distinctive.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the context of the “altogether different” ways men and women can influence society, the word “peculiar” suggests something unique or distinctive, not something unusual and odd (choice A), unexpected (choice B), or rare (choice D).
QUESTION 16
Choice A is the best answer. In Passage 2, Grimké makes the main point that people have rights because they are human, not because of their gender or race. This is clear in lines 58-60, when Grimké states that “human beings have rights, because they are moral beings: the rights of all men grow out of their moral nature” and lines 65-68, when Grimké writes, “Now if rights are founded in the nature of our moral being, then the mere circumstance of sex does not give to man higher rights and responsibilities, than to woman.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Grimké primarily emphasizes that all men and women inherently have the same rights (“rights are founded in the nature of our moral being,” lines 65-66). Her central claim is not that men and women need to work together to change society (choice B), that moral rights are the distinguishing characteristic separating humans from animals (choice C), or that there should be equal opportunities for men and women to advance and succeed.
QUESTION 17
Choice B is the best answer. In Passage 2, Grimké makes the point that human rights are not fleeting or changeable but things that remain, regardless of the circumstances, because they are tied to humans’ moral nature. She emphasizes that human rights exist even if societal laws attempt to contradict or override them, citing slavery as an example: “These rights may be wrested from the slave, but they cannot be alienated: his title to himself is as perfect now, as is that of Lyman Beecher: it is stamped on his moral being, and is, like it, imperishable” (lines 61-65).
Choices A and D are incorrect because in Passage 2, Grimké makes the point that human rights are inherent and unchanging, not that they are viewed differently in different societies (choice A) or that they have changed and developed over time (choice D). Choice C is incorrect because Grimké doesn’t describe a clash between human rights and moral responsibilities; instead, she says that humans have rights “because they are moral beings” (lines 58-59).
QUESTION 18
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what point Grimké makes about human rights in Passage 2, with the answer being that they exist and have moral authority whether or not they are established by societal law. This is supported in lines 61-65: “These rights may be wrested from the slave, but they cannot be alienated: his title to himself is as perfect now, as is that of Lyman Beecher: it is stamped on his moral being, and is, like it, imperishable.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about the point Grimké makes about human rights in Passage 2. Instead, they explain the source of all people’s human rights (choice A), indicate what would happen if rights were determined by gender (choice C), and discuss why gender is irrelevant to rights (choice D).
QUESTION 19
Choice B is the best answer. In Passage 1, Beecher asserts that men and women naturally have different positions in society: “Heaven has appointed to one sex the superior, and to the other the subordinate station” (lines 1-2). She goes on to argue that a woman should act within her subordinate role to influence men but should not “exert coercive influences” that would put her “out of her appropriate sphere” (lines 44-46). In Passage 2, Grimké takes issue with the idea that men and women have different rights and roles. She asserts that as moral beings all people have the same inherent rights and states that “the mere circumstance of sex does not give to man higher rights and responsibilities, than to woman” (lines 66-68).
Choice A is incorrect because Passage 2 does not discuss the practical difficulties of something that is proposed in Passage 1 but rather argues against the main point of Passage 1. Choice C is incorrect because Passage 2 does not provide historical context for the view expressed in Passage 1; the passages were published at around the same time and both discuss contemporary society. Choice D is incorrect because Passage 2 does not elaborate on implications found in Passage 1 as much as it disputes the ideas explicitly expressed in Passage 1.
QUESTION 20
Choice A is the best answer. While Beecher and Grimké clearly disagree regarding a woman’s role in society, the passages suggest that both authors share the belief that women do have moral duties and responsibilities in society. In Passage 1, Beecher writes that “while woman holds a subordinate relation in society to the other sex, it is not because it was designed that her duties or her influence should be any the less important, or all-pervading” (lines 6-10). She suggests that women do have an obligation to use their influence to bring about beneficial changes in society. In Passage 2, Grimké asserts that all people “are moral beings” (lines 58-59) and that both men and women have “rights and responsibilities” (line 68). She concludes that “whatever it is morally right for man to do, it is morally right for woman to do” (lines 81-83).
Choice B is incorrect because neither author suggests that when men work to bring about political changes, they often do so out of consideration for others rather than considerations for themselves. Choice C is incorrect because neither passage discusses the value given to women’s ethical obligations, although both authors suggest that women do have ethical and moral obligations. Choice D is incorrect because in Passage 1 Beecher argues that women should avoid direct political activism, cautioning against actions that would put them outside their “appropriate sphere” (line 46).
QUESTION 21
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 65-68 of Passage 2, Grimké writes, “Now if rights are founded in the nature of our moral being, then the mere circumstance of sex does not give to man higher rights and responsibilities, than to woman.” In other words, gender does not make men’s rights and duties superior to women’s. Beecher, on the other hand, begins Passage 1 by stating that “heaven has appointed to one sex the superior, and to the other the subordinate station,” suggesting that men and women have fundamentally different natures. Therefore, Beecher most likely would have disagreed with Grimké’s assertion.
Choices A and B are incorrect because Beecher fundamentally disagrees with Grimké regarding the basic nature and societal roles of men and women, making it very unlikely that she would have viewed Grimké’s statement in lines 65-68 with either sympathy or agreement. Choice C is incorrect because Beecher wouldn’t necessarily have been dismayed by Grimké’s belief as much as she would have simply disagreed with it, and she does not indicate that the role of women in society is more difficult to play than is that of men.
QUESTION 22
Choice A is the best answer. In line 14, the passage states that industrial agriculture has become “incredibly efficient on a simple land to food basis.” In this context, “simple” suggests something basic or straightforward.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of a land to food dynamic, the word “simple” suggests something basic or straightforward, not something humble (choice B), something without any decoration or ornamentation (choice C), or something that requires little effort (choice D).
QUESTION 23
Choice B is the best answer. The passage clearly states that conventional agriculture is very efficient, especially when compared to organic farming: “organic farming yields 25% fewer crops on average than conventional agriculture” (lines 40-42) and in a study “organic farming delivered a lower yield for every crop type” (lines 51-52). It can therefore be understood from the passage that conventional agriculture does a good job maximizing the output of the land that is farmed.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage states how efficient conventional agriculture is in regard to the amount of food it can produce but does not indicate that it produces a significantly wide variety of fruits and vegetables. Choice C is incorrect because even if the passage does say that each American farmer can produce crops to feed “over 155 people worldwide” (lines 16-17), it never claims that conventional agriculture can satisfactorily feed everyone in the world. Choice D is incorrect because the passage states that conventional agriculture uses a great deal of nitrogen, not that it changes the need for nitrogen in plant growth one way or the other.
QUESTION 24
Choice A is the best answer. The passage makes it clear that “most environmentalists” (line 27) believe conventional agriculture produces food that is not as healthy as food produced through organic farming and that it is more harmful to the environment than organic farming is: many environmentalists “have embraced organic food as better for the planet—and healthier and tastier, too—than the stuff produced by agricultural corporations” (lines 28-31).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not supported by the passage. The passage never states that many environmentalists believe that conventional farming reduces the need to convert wilderness to farmland (choice B), is in any way good for the environment (choice C), or protects wildlife habitats (choice D).
QUESTION 25
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks how environmentalists perceive conventional agriculture, with the answer being that they believe it produces a product that is less healthy and more environmentally destructive than that produced by organic farming. This is supported in lines 28-31: “They have embraced organic food as better for the planet—and healthier and tastier, too—than the stuff produced by agricultural corporations.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about how environmentalists perceive the efforts of conventional agriculture. Although the lines in choice A do touch on environmentalists’ views, they indicate only that most environmentalists don’t view conventional agriculture’s ability to “produce more food on less land” (line 25) as beneficial to the environment. Choice C is incorrect because these lines address environmentalists’ view of the environmental effects of conventional and organic farming but not the taste or nutritional value of the food produced. Choice D is incorrect because these lines focus on a drawback to organic farming.
QUESTION 26
Choice C is the best answer. The passage makes it clear that while both conventional and organic farming need nitrogen for plant growth, conventional farming uses synthetic fertilizers and organic does not: “Conventional agriculture makes use of 171 million metric tons of synthetic fertilizer each year, and all that nitrogen enables much faster plant growth than the slower release of nitrogen from the compost or cover crops used in organic farming” (lines 61-65).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not state that conventional and organic farming are equally sustainable and does state that organic farming needs “more land” to produce “fewer crops” (lines 42-43) but does not indicate that it always requires dramatically more land. Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not state that organic farming uses artificial chemicals. Choice D is incorrect because the passage mentions nitrogen runoff only as a product of conventional farming, not organic farming, and does not indicate that only the nitrogen in conventional fertilizers is dangerous.
QUESTION 27
Choice D is the best answer. The previous question asks about the relationship between conventional agriculture and organic farming, with the answer being that unlike organic farms, conventional farms use synthetic fertilizers. This is supported in lines 61-65: “Conventional agriculture makes use of 171 million metric tons of synthetic fertilizer each year, and all that nitrogen enables much faster plant growth than the slower release of nitrogen from the compost or cover crops used in organic farming.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about the relationship between conventional and organic farming, instead describing the efficiency only of conventional agriculture (choice A), discussing one perceived positive aspect of conventional agriculture (choice B), and highlighting a drawback of organic farming (choice C).
QUESTION 28
Choice B is the best answer. The passage states that the authors of the study comparing conventional and organic farming have come to the conclusion that an “ideal global agriculture system” would “borrow the best from both systems” (lines 80-82). The quote from Jonathan Foley in lines 84-97 indicates that this ideal system would take into consideration many different factors, including the nutrition and calories offered by specific types of foods as well as different geographic, economic, and social needs.
Choices A and D are incorrect because the passage makes it clear that the “ideal global agriculture system” would give consideration to multiple factors, not that it would focus mainly on productivity (choice A) or nutritional value (choice D). Choice C is incorrect because Foley states that the ideal system would take economics into consideration but does not indicate that farmers’ economic interests would be weighed against consumers’ needs.
QUESTION 29
Choice D is the best answer. The passage states that conventional agriculture can be superior to organic farming in terms of producing “sheer calories” (line 88). In this context, “sheer” most nearly means pure; the passage is referring to the pure number of calories delivered by foods.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in the context of discussing the calories foods can provide, “sheer” suggests the pure number of calories. Also, it does not make sense to say that calories can be seen through (choice A), are somehow sudden or happen unexpectedly (choice B), or are at a very sharp angle (choice C).
QUESTION 30
Choice B is the best answer. Figure 1 shows that the organic yield as a percentage of conventional yield is similar for cereals and all crops, with both yielding roughly 75%.
Choice A is incorrect because figure 1 shows that the organic yield as a percentage of conventional yield is higher for fruits (just under 100%) than for vegetables (just under 70%). Choice C is incorrect because figure 1 shows there were only 28 observations for oilseed crops. Choice D is incorrect because figure 1 shows that the organic yield as a percentage of conventional yield is higher for oilseed crops (approximately 90%) than for vegetables (just under 70%).
QUESTION 31
Choice D is the best answer. Every organically grown species represented in figure 2 produces a smaller yield than do their conventional counterparts. All of the organically grown species are within a range of approximately 60–90% of the conventional yield.
Choice A is incorrect because figure 2 shows that soybeans have the highest yield (approximately 90%), not the lowest. Choice B is incorrect because figure 2 shows that organically grown barley and maize are produced at a lower yield than the conventionally grown species (just below 70% and just below 90%, respectively), not a comparable one. Choice C is incorrect because figure 2 shows that soybeans, not tomatoes, have the highest yield of the organically grown species.
QUESTION 32
Choice B is the best answer. The majority of the passage focuses on the experiment concerning “how much the crowd influences the individual, and whether it can be controlled from outside” (lines 42-44). After explaining the experiment and the results it produced, the passage moves on to consider questions raised by the results, such as whether the findings are site specific or “true in general” (lines 75-76), why different findings are observed, and whether companies can “boost their products by manipulating online ratings on a massive scale” (lines 85-86).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not conclude by explaining the practical ways the experiment’s findings have been applied but rather by considering questions the findings raise. Choices C and D are incorrect because the passage does not indicate that there were any flaws in the experiment’s findings and does not include statements from anyone who disputes the findings.
QUESTION 33
Choice C is the best answer. The author of the passage suggests that a group of people can be “wiser” and more effective than a single person at assessing a quantitative answer, or a measurement, versus producing a valid qualitative judgment, or a judgment of the quality of something. This is most clear in lines 11-14, which state that when guessing a bull’s weight or how many gumballs are in a jar, “your guess is probably going to be far from the mark, whereas the average of many people’s choices is remarkably close to the true number.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lines 11-14 indicate that the author believes that crowds may be more effective than individuals when arriving at quantitative answers rather than qualitative results. Nothing in the passage suggests that the author believes that crowds are better at starting disagreements than studying an issue in depth (choice A), supporting ideas rather than challenging them (choice B), or ranking opinions rather than coming up with new ideas (choice D).
QUESTION 34
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what the author of the passage suggests about the wisdom of crowds, with the answer being that crowds can be more effective at producing quantitative answers than qualitative results. This is supported in lines 11-14: when it comes to guessing a bull’s weight or how many gumballs are in a jar, “your guess is probably going to be far from the mark, whereas the average of many people’s choices is remarkably close to the true number.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about the author’s belief about when the wisdom of a crowd is effective. Instead, they simply state that crowds are sometimes wiser than individuals, without explaining when (choice A), put forth a theory held by someone other than the author (choice C), and explain how hypotheses about the wisdom of crowds could be tested (choice D).
QUESTION 35
Choice A is the best answer. In the passage, the author explains that those who are skeptical of the theory that “measuring the aggregate of people’s opinions produces a stable, reliable value” (lines 1820) believe that “people’s opinions are easily swayed by those of others” (lines 20-21). This idea is best supported in lines 55-58, which describe a finding from a study of opinions in crowds: “Comments that received fake positive votes from the researchers were 32% more likely to receive more positive votes compared with a control, the team reports.” In other words, people were more likely to give a positive vote when they thought other people had given positive votes.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not provide support for the skeptics’ idea that people’s opinions are easily influenced by the thoughts of others. Instead, they cite findings concerning people giving ratings different from those already given (choices B and C) and share an observation that the degree to which others can be influenced depends in part on the context of the situation (choice D).
QUESTION 36
Choice B is the best answer. One question Watts asks in regard to the experiment is whether the results would hold true on a larger scale. The passage quotes him in lines 74-76: “‘[But] one question is whether the positive [herding] bias is specific to this site’ or true in general.” Doing the experiment again but collecting ratings on multiple websites would address Watts’s question, as it would show whether or not the same results occur on other sites.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Providing fewer fake positive comments during the experiment (choice A), requiring users to be registered on the website (choice C), or telling users that their answers will be studied (choice D) are actions that likely would affect the results of the experiment involving users voting on comments about stories on one news website, but they would not address Watts’s questions about whether the study would produce the same results on other websites or why different categories of news items had different effects on the news website.
QUESTION 37
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 85-86 the author asks, “Will companies be able to boost their products by manipulating online ratings on a massive scale?” In the context of selling products by manipulating user reviews, “boost” most nearly means promote.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the context of selling products by manipulating user reviews, the word “boost” refers to promoting the products, not making them larger or bigger (choice A), faster (choice B), or safe (choice D).
QUESTION 38
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 85-86 the author asks, “Will companies be able to boost their products by manipulating online ratings on a massive scale?” In the context of selling products by manipulating user reviews on a massive scale, the word “scale” most nearly means level or size.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of selling products by manipulating user reviews, a massive “scale” refers to a great level or size, not to a payment (choice B), an interval or space between things (choice C), or a plan (choice D).
QUESTION 39
Choice B is the best answer. The figure shows that while the mean score of the control comments in the politics category is below 2.0, the artificially up-voted mean score for that category is exactly 2.5.
Choice A is incorrect because the artificially up-voted mean score of comments in the business category is higher than 3.0. Choice C is incorrect because the artificially up-voted mean score of comments in the fun category is less than 2.5. Choice D is incorrect because the artificially up-voted mean score of the comments in the general news category is just over 2.0.
QUESTION 40
Choice D is the best answer. The figure shows that the mean score for both control comments and artificially up-voted comments in the general news category is just above 2.0.
Choice A is incorrect because the mean score for the control comments in the culture and society category is a little below 2.5 while the mean score for the artificially up-voted comments is over 3.0. Choice B is incorrect because the mean score for the control comments in the information technology category is a little above 1.5 while the mean score for the artificially up-voted comments is above 2.0. Choice C is incorrect because the mean score for the control comments in the fun category is exactly 2.0 while the mean score for the artificially up-voted comments is nearly 2.5.
QUESTION 41
Choice D is the best answer. In the passage Watts notes that “the category of the news items . . . had a
strong effect on how much people could be manipulated” (lines 76-79). That idea is directly supported by the data in the figure, which show that the difference in mean score between the control comments and the artificially up-voted comments varies by subject (for example, in the general news category there is virtually no difference between the mean scores of the two types of comments, while for the business category there is almost a 1.0-point difference between the mean scores).
Choices A and B are incorrect because the passage provides no data for artificially down-voted comments or negative social influence. Choice C is incorrect because the figure applies only to one context (mean score of control comments versus mean score of artificially up-voted comments on the news site); there is no way to tell what patterns would be observed in other contexts.
QUESTION 42
Choice C is the best answer. According to the passage, Maguire found that taxi drivers’ hippocampi are “7 percent larger than normal,” which is evidence that “way-finding around London had physically altered the gross structure of their brains” (lines 10-14). In lines 20-26, the passage indicates that this finding challenges an earlier consensus: “It had long been thought that the adult brain was incapable of spawning new neurons—that . . . the brain’s basic anatomical structure was more or less static.
Maguire’s study suggested the old inherited wisdom was simply not true.”
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not indicate that Maguire used a new method in her study or that her findings demonstrate the validity of a method. Choice B is incorrect because lines 2026 show that Maguire’s findings disprove a popular viewpoint, not that they support one. Choice D is incorrect because although Maguire’s findings call into question a previous idea, there is no indication that they challenge the authenticity of any previous data.
QUESTION 43
Choice D is the best answer. The previous question asks about the significance of Maguire’s findings, with the answer being that her findings call into question a previous belief. This is supported in lines 2026: “It had long been thought that the adult brain was incapable of spawning new neurons—that . . . the brain’s basic anatomical structure was more or less static. Maguire’s study suggested the old inherited wisdom was simply not true.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about the significance of Maguire’s findings. Choices A and B are incorrect because these lines present Maguire’s observation and her conclusion but do not indicate that her findings call into question a previous belief. Choice C is incorrect because these lines simply explain one capability of the human brain.
QUESTION 44
Choice D is the best answer. In line 24, the passage discusses the “brain’s basic anatomical structure.” In this context, the word “basic” most nearly means fundamental.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in the context of discussing the brain’s structure, the word “basic” most nearly means fundamental, not first (choice A), uncomplicated (choice B), or required (choice C).
QUESTION 45
Choice C is the best answer. The purpose of Maguire’s study of the mental athletes was to try to determine what it is that makes them so good at memorization, and in particular if they have structurally different brains than people without such extraordinary memorization skills or if they have normal brain structures but use them in unusual ways. This is supported in lines 33-37, which state that Maguire and her team “wanted to find out if the memorizers’ brains were—like the London cabbies’— structurally different from the rest of ours, or if they were somehow just making better use of memory abilities that we all possess.”
Choice A is incorrect because the study was an attempt to compare the brains of mental athletes to the brains of the general population, not to compare the use of different brain structures in memorization and navigation. Choices B and D are incorrect because the passage makes it clear that it was not known if mental athletes have unusual brain structures; finding out if they do was actually one of the goals of the study.
QUESTION 46
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what Maguire’s study of mental athletes attempted to answer, with the answer being the question of whether it is brain structure or an unusual use of the brain that gives certain people extraordinary memorization skills. This is supported in lines 3337: “They wanted to find out if the memorizers’ brains were—like the London cabbies’—structurally different from the rest of ours, or if they were somehow just making better use of memory abilities that we all possess.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about what Maguire’s study of mental athletes was investigating. Instead they simply identify the subject of the study (choice A), explain what the study involved (choice C), and state a finding concerning the cognitive ability of the mental athletes (choice D).
QUESTION 47
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 38-39, the passage describes part of Maguire’s study by stating that “the researchers put both the mental athletes and a group of matched control subjects into MRI scanners.” In the context of a study that has two groups of subjects, the word “matched” suggests subjects that are similar or comparable.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of a study with two groups of subjects, the word “matched” suggests subjects that are similar or comparable, not ones that are exactly the same (choice B), ones that are recognizably different (choice C), or ones that are rivals (choice D).
QUESTION 48
Choice C is the best answer. The main purpose of the fifth paragraph (lines 57-65) is to relate what Maguire discovered about the mental athletes, namely that their brain structures are not different from those of the control group but that the mental athletes use their brains differently: “there was one telling difference . . . regions of the brain that were less active in the control subjects seemed to be working in overdrive for the mental athletes.”
Choice A is incorrect because the fifth paragraph does not mention the taxi drivers or the study involving them. Choice B is incorrect because the fifth paragraph describes some of the unexpected results of Maguire’s study but does not address the possible reasons for those results. Choice D is incorrect because the fifth paragraph describes only Maguire’s findings, not her methods.
QUESTION 49
Choice C is the best answer. The passage indicates that Maguire’s second study revealed that people in the control group don’t have different brain structures than the mental athletes but that they use their brains differently. In particular, the two groups use different pathways in the brain: “regions of the brain that were less active in the control subjects seemed to be working in overdrive for the mental athletes” (lines 63-65).
Choices A and D are incorrect because the passage states that there was only “one telling difference between the brains of the mental athletes and the control subjects” (lines 57-58); there is no indication that the control group showed less total brain activity or had smaller hippocampal regions. Choice B is incorrect because the passage mentions only the general cognitive ability of the mental athletes, noting that their scores were “within the normal range” (line 54).
QUESTION 50
Choice A is the best answer. After establishing in lines 50-51 that the brains of the control group and the mental athletes seemed to be “indistinguishable,” the passage suggests that the reason mental athletes are so good at memorization is that they use parts of their brains that most other people don’t use when memorizing: “Surprisingly, when the mental athletes were learning new information, they were engaging several regions of the brain known to be involved in two specific tasks: visual memory and spatial navigation, including the same right posterior hippocampal region that the London cabbies had enlarged with all their daily way-finding” (lines 66-72).
Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage explains that the mental athletes were converting information into images, not abstract symbols or numerical lists. Choice D is incorrect because it is not supported by the passage, as the author discusses the mental athletes’ actions while memorizing but not any brain exercises the mental athletes regularly do.
QUESTION 51
Choice A is the best answer. The previous question asks what the passage suggests about the mental athletes’ success with memorization, with the answer being that they use parts of the brain that most other people don’t use when memorizing. This is supported in lines 66-72: “Surprisingly, when the mental athletes were learning new information, they were engaging several regions of the brain known to be involved in two specific tasks: visual memory and spatial navigation, including the same right posterior hippocampal region that the London cabbies had enlarged with all their daily way-finding.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not support the answer to the previous question about what the passage suggests about the mental athletes’ success with memorization. Instead, they acknowledge that Maguire’s findings seem odd (choice B), describe how Maguire first responded to the results (choice C), and explain things that don’t account for the mental athletes’ ability (choice D).
QUESTION 52
Choice B is the best answer. According to the passage, Maguire’s study revealed that the mental athletes were using the same parts of the brain for memorization as were the London cabbies from the first study, a result that was initially puzzling. The questions in lines 74-78 highlight and expand on that result, making it clear that it is surprising to find that the mental athletes use images to remember numbers or use a part of the brain associated with navigation when trying to remember shapes. Although it became clear how the mental athletes were memorizing things, it was not clear why they were doing it that way.
Choice A is incorrect because the questions in lines 74-78 seem to reflect additional questions Maguire and others had based on their result and do not suggest that Maguire’s conclusions may not be reliable. Choice C is incorrect because the passage makes no mention of any earlier studies of the phenomenon of using images to remember numbers or to use a part of the brain associated with navigation when trying to remember shapes. Choice D is incorrect because the questions in lines 74-78 specifically address Maguire’s two studies but not her earlier work.
Section 2: Writing Test
QUESTION 1
Choice C is the best answer because the sentence is not directly related to the main point of the paragraph and should not be added. The main idea of the paragraph is that new high-tech fossil models help expand scientists’ knowledge of ancient species. There is no indication in the paragraph that these scientists are concerned about the age of the rocks in which fossils are found.
Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence should not be added. It neither adds support to an argument nor provides a transition from one sentence to another. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence does not undermine any claim made in the paragraph.
QUESTION 2
Choice D is the best answer because “promise” suggests the hope of good things to come. The models offer the possibility of advancing the field of paleontology in the future.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the passage.
QUESTION 3
Choice B is the best answer because the sentence should be kept: it provides a brief but useful explanation of how a 3-D printer works.
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence should be kept because it provides important information about 3-D printers, not because it explains why X-rays are used in CT scanners. Choices C and D are incorrect because the sentence is neither contradictory nor confusing and should not be deleted.
QUESTION 4
Choice C is the best answer because the relative pronoun “which” appropriately follows the independent clause “The plastic hardens quickly.” It introduces the relative clause explaining what the fact that the plastic hardens quickly allows the printer to do.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each results in a comma splice (the joining of two independent clauses with only a comma).
QUESTION 5
Choice A is the best answer because no change is needed. The prepositional phrase “in order” and the infinitive “to learn” are appropriately used in conjunction to create an idiomatic phrase.
Choices B and D are incorrect because the phrases “in order for learning” and “so to learn” are not idiomatic. Choice C is incorrect because the pronoun “one” is inconsistent with the noun “team,” which identifies a specific team.
QUESTION 6
Choice C is the best answer because the personal plural pronoun “their” agrees in number with its antecedent, the plural noun “fossils.”
Choice A is incorrect because the pronoun “its” is singular and doesn’t agree with the plural antecedent “fossils.” Choices B and D are incorrect because a personal pronoun is needed in the sentence. Neither “it’s” (the contraction of “it is”) nor “there” is a personal pronoun.
QUESTION 7
Choice D is the best answer because sentence 2 should be placed after sentence 5 to make the paragraph most logical. Sentence 2 begins “But now,” signaling a contrast with the past. Sentences 4 and 5 tell what scientists did in the past, so it makes sense for sentence 2 to follow sentence 5.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they result in a paragraph that does not proceed logically. Keeping sentence 2, which begins “But now,” where it is now (choice A) or placing it at the beginning of the paragraph (choice B) signals a contrast with the past that doesn’t make sense in context. Placing sentence 2 after sentence 4 (choice C) appropriately signals a contrast with the past but creates problems for sentence 5, which needs to be placed directly after sentence 4 to continue the discussion of past research limitations.
QUESTION 8
Choice D is the best answer because the phrase “for example” indicates that an example will follow. In this paragraph, the sentence that follows the phrase provides a relevant example of the use of technology to “reproduce fossils that scientists cannot observe firsthand.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they set up expectations that are not carried out in the paragraph. “By contrast” in choice A and “nonetheless” in choice B suggest that contrary information will follow. “Besides” in choice C suggests that additional information will follow. None of these choices indicates what should be indicated: that an example will follow.
QUESTION 9
Choice B is the best answer because the simple past tense verb “relied” is consistent with the other past tense verbs in the National Museum of Brazil example, such as “dug” and “determined.”
Choices A and D are incorrect because they provide singular verbs that don’t agree in number with the plural subject “researchers.” Choice C is incorrect because the future tense helping verb “will” is inconsistent with the other past tense verbs in the National Museum of Brazil example.
QUESTION 10
Choice C is the best answer because it clearly and concisely combines the sentences in a way that shows the cause-effect relationship between the condition of the fossil and the decision by the research team.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not effectively combine the sentences. In each of these choices, the sentence mischaracterizes the relationship between the condition of the fossil and the decision by the research team.
QUESTION 11
Choice C is the best answer because the plural pronoun “they” correctly refers to its plural antecedent “researchers.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because “one,” “he or she,” and “it” are singular pronouns. A plural pronoun is needed to agree in number with the plural antecedent “researchers.”
QUESTION 12
Choice D is the best answer because no transitional phrase is needed between the two sentences. The first sentence indicates that Tweed wanted to silence Nast, and the second sentence simply states what happened next: that his attempt to do so failed.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because no transitional phrase or conjunctive adverb such as “therefore” or “furthermore” is needed between the sentences. The information in the second sentence neither results from information in the first nor is in addition to it. Rather, it tells what happened next: the first sentence indicates that Tweed wanted to silence Nast, and the second states that his attempt to do so failed.
QUESTION 13
Choice D is the best answer because it is the only choice that clearly and concisely conveys the key information that “in the 1860s and the 1870s, . . . organizations known as ‘political machines’ started taking control of city governments.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they all contain unnecessary words or invert the logical order of words in ways that lead to vagueness and redundancy. In choice A, it is unclear if the pronoun “they” refers to “organizations” or “governments.” In choices B and C, word order is inverted, creating a lack of concision (“political organizations that were powerful” is used instead of “powerful political organizations”; “governments were taken control of” and “organizations . . . did so” are used instead of “organizations . . . started taking control of
governments”).
QUESTION 14
Choice A is the best answer because no words are needed between the noun phrase “purchasing votes” and the explanatory appositive phrase that follows it (“a form of . . .”).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the participle “being” and the pronouns “that” and “which” are not needed to introduce the appositive phrase “a form of . . .,” which explains the concept of “purchasing votes.”
QUESTION 15
Choice B is the best answer because the comma after “1860s” is used correctly with the comma after “group” to set off the inessential (nonrestrictive) clause “which controlled New York City in the 1860s.”
Choice A is incorrect because a dash cannot be used in conjunction with a comma to set off a nonessential clause. Either two commas or two dashes may be used, but not one of each. Choice C is incorrect because a comma is not needed after “City.” Choice D is incorrect because a comma is necessary to separate the nonessential clause from the rest of the sentence.
QUESTION 16
Choice C is the best answer because the sentence should be deleted. Although the information is true, it is not essential to the paragraph, which is focused on political machines in general and the Tammany Hall group in particular, not on Tweed himself.
Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence should not be kept. Choice D is incorrect because, while the sentence should be deleted, it does not undermine or challenge the main claim of the passage.
QUESTION 17
Choice C is the best answer because no comma is needed before “commented,” and the comma after “commented” correctly separates the first part of the sentence from the quotation it introduces.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each includes one or more unnecessary commas.
QUESTION 18
Choice A is the best answer because the adjective “famous,” which means widely known, clearly and concisely describes “images.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because “well-known” and “commonly known” are repetitive when used with the adjective “famous,” which means widely known.
QUESTION 19
Choice D is the best answer because it adds the most relevant supporting information. The paragraph is focused on the cartoons’ depictions of Tweed as a thief, so making an explicit connection between one cartoon and “Tweed’s greedy nature” is extremely relevant to the paragraph.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they all contain irrelevant information. Information about Nast’s other cartoons, Tweed’s prison escape, and Tweed’s hat is not important to add to the paragraph, which is focused on the cartoons’ depictions of Tweed as a thief.
QUESTION 20
Choice D is the best answer because the word “prosecuted” correctly indicates that Tweed was charged and tried for his crimes. The preposition “on” is idiomatic when used with the verb “prosecuted.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the word “persecuted” means that someone is harassed or oppressed, not that he or she is charged with a crime. “Persecuted” doesn’t fit into the context of this sentence, which is about the legal troubles of Tweed and his gang.
QUESTION 21
Choice A is the best answer because the past tense verb “brought” is consistent with the other past tense verbs in the sentence, such as “escaped” and “fled.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the participle “bringing,” the present tense verb “brings,” and the present perfect tense verb “has brought” are not consistent with the other verbs in the sentence.