Chemotherapy Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Chemotherapy Practice Exam Questions and Answers

 

1. What is the mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide?

A) Inhibition of topoisomerase
B) DNA alkylation
C) Microtubule disruption
D) Folate antagonism
Answer: B) DNA alkylation
Explanation: Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that works by adding alkyl groups to DNA, leading to DNA damage and cell death.

2. Which drug is commonly used for treating ovarian cancer?

A) Methotrexate
B) Cisplatin
C) Doxorubicin
D) Fluorouracil
Answer: B) Cisplatin
Explanation: Cisplatin is a platinum-based chemotherapy drug that is widely used to treat ovarian cancer.

3. What is the main dose-limiting side effect of doxorubicin?

A) Nausea
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Neutropenia
D) Hepatotoxicity
Answer: B) Cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Doxorubicin is known to cause dose-dependent cardiomyopathy, which limits its use.

4. Which chemotherapy agent causes peripheral neuropathy as a common side effect?

A) Paclitaxel
B) Methotrexate
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Vincristine
Answer: D) Vincristine
Explanation: Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid that commonly causes peripheral neuropathy.

5. Which of the following is a common side effect of methotrexate?

A) Renal failure
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Methotrexate can cause renal failure, bone marrow suppression, and hepatotoxicity, among other side effects.

6. What is the mechanism of action of taxanes like paclitaxel?

A) Inhibition of topoisomerase
B) Microtubule stabilization
C) DNA alkylation
D) Folate antagonism
Answer: B) Microtubule stabilization
Explanation: Taxanes like paclitaxel stabilize microtubules, preventing their disassembly and inhibiting cell division.

7. Which chemotherapy drug is classified as a topoisomerase II inhibitor?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Paclitaxel
C) Methotrexate
D) Cisplatin
Answer: A) Doxorubicin
Explanation: Doxorubicin works by inhibiting topoisomerase II, preventing DNA replication.

8. What is the role of G-CSF (Granulocyte-Colony Stimulating Factor) in chemotherapy?

A) Increase platelet count
B) Stimulate red blood cell production
C) Promote white blood cell recovery
D) Prevent nausea
Answer: C) Promote white blood cell recovery
Explanation: G-CSF is used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, especially neutrophils, following chemotherapy-induced neutropenia.

9. Which drug is used to prevent nausea and vomiting in chemotherapy patients?

A) Ondansetron
B) Methotrexate
C) Cisplatin
D) Vincristine
Answer: A) Ondansetron
Explanation: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy.

10. Which of the following is a hallmark side effect of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)?

A) Neutropenia
B) Mucositis
C) Pulmonary fibrosis
D) Cardiotoxicity
Answer: B) Mucositis
Explanation: Mucositis, or inflammation of the mucosal lining, is a common side effect of 5-FU.

11. Which type of chemotherapy drug is paclitaxel?

A) Alkylating agent
B) Antimetabolite
C) Vinca alkaloid
D) Taxane
Answer: D) Taxane
Explanation: Paclitaxel is a taxane, a class of drugs that stabilizes microtubules and prevents their disassembly.

12. Which of the following drugs is a common treatment for leukemia?

A) Methotrexate
B) Vincristine
C) Asparaginase
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Methotrexate, vincristine, and asparaginase are all used to treat leukemia, depending on the specific type and stage.

13. What is the mechanism of action of fluorouracil (5-FU)?

A) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
B) DNA alkylation
C) Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
D) Microtubule stabilization
Answer: C) Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
Explanation: 5-FU inhibits thymidylate synthase, which is necessary for DNA synthesis.

14. Which drug can be used to rescue normal cells from methotrexate toxicity?

A) Leucovorin
B) G-CSF
C) Filgrastim
D) N-acetylcysteine
Answer: A) Leucovorin
Explanation: Leucovorin is used as a “rescue” agent to protect normal cells from methotrexate toxicity.

15. What is a common side effect of cisplatin?

A) Ototoxicity
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Alopecia
D) Cardiomyopathy
Answer: A) Ototoxicity
Explanation: Cisplatin is known to cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss in some patients.

16. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Methotrexate
C) Doxorubicin
D) Vincristine
Answer: A) Cyclophosphamide
Explanation: Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis due to its metabolites, which can irritate the bladder.

17. Which chemotherapy drug is commonly used for breast cancer treatment?

A) Methotrexate
B) Tamoxifen
C) Bleomycin
D) Cisplatin
Answer: B) Tamoxifen
Explanation: Tamoxifen is commonly used in hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer to block estrogen receptors.

18. What is the primary action of vincristine?

A) DNA alkylation
B) Inhibition of microtubule polymerization
C) Inhibition of topoisomerase
D) Antagonism of folate
Answer: B) Inhibition of microtubule polymerization
Explanation: Vincristine inhibits microtubule polymerization, disrupting mitosis and cell division.

19. Which of the following is a risk factor for chemotherapy-induced cardiotoxicity?

A) Concurrent use of anthracyclines and trastuzumab
B) High-dose cyclophosphamide
C) Preexisting heart disease
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: The risk of cardiotoxicity is increased by factors like concurrent use of certain drugs, high doses, and preexisting heart conditions.

20. Which drug is used as a chemoprotective agent against anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity?

A) Dexrazoxane
B) Leucovorin
C) N-acetylcysteine
D) G-CSF
Answer: A) Dexrazoxane
Explanation: Dexrazoxane is used to prevent cardiotoxicity associated with anthracycline chemotherapy.

 

21. What is the primary mechanism of action of methotrexate?

A) Inhibition of topoisomerase
B) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
C) Microtubule stabilization
D) DNA alkylation
Answer: B) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to a decrease in tetrahydrofolate and impaired DNA synthesis.

22. Which chemotherapy drug is commonly used for non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)?

A) Methotrexate
B) Paclitaxel
C) Bleomycin
D) Vinblastine
Answer: B) Paclitaxel
Explanation: Paclitaxel is used in the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), often in combination with other drugs.

23. What is the mechanism of action of irinotecan?

A) Inhibition of topoisomerase I
B) Inhibition of microtubules
C) DNA alkylation
D) Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
Answer: A) Inhibition of topoisomerase I
Explanation: Irinotecan is a topoisomerase I inhibitor, preventing the enzyme from repairing DNA breaks, leading to DNA damage and cancer cell death.

24. What is a common side effect of paclitaxel?

A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Neuropathy
C) Pulmonary fibrosis
D) Ototoxicity
Answer: B) Neuropathy
Explanation: Paclitaxel is known to cause peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to tingling, numbness, or pain in the extremities.

25. What is the purpose of using corticosteroids during chemotherapy?

A) To reduce inflammation and improve appetite
B) To promote cancer cell death
C) To decrease bone marrow suppression
D) To enhance drug absorption
Answer: A) To reduce inflammation and improve appetite
Explanation: Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation, manage nausea, and stimulate appetite in chemotherapy patients.

26. Which chemotherapy drug class does vincristine belong to?

A) Alkylating agents
B) Antimetabolites
C) Vinca alkaloids
D) Platinum analogs
Answer: C) Vinca alkaloids
Explanation: Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid, a class of drugs that disrupts microtubule formation, inhibiting cell division.

27. What is the most common side effect of cisplatin?

A) Neutropenia
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Alopecia
D) Diarrhea
Answer: B) Nausea and vomiting
Explanation: Cisplatin is notorious for causing severe nausea and vomiting, which is why antiemetics are commonly given with it.

28. Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Bleomycin
C) Methotrexate
D) Cyclophosphamide
Answer: B) Bleomycin
Explanation: Bleomycin can cause pulmonary fibrosis, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by scarring of the lung tissue.

29. Which of the following is a mechanism of resistance to chemotherapy?

A) Increased drug efflux
B) Drug inactivation
C) Altered drug target
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Chemotherapy resistance can occur through various mechanisms, including increased efflux, drug inactivation, or changes in the drug target.

30. Which of the following agents is used to treat breast cancer in postmenopausal women?

A) Anastrozole
B) Tamoxifen
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Methotrexate
Answer: A) Anastrozole
Explanation: Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing estrogen production.

31. Which chemotherapy drug is known for causing hand-foot syndrome?

A) Doxorubicin
B) 5-fluorouracil
C) Paclitaxel
D) Capecitabine
Answer: D) Capecitabine
Explanation: Capecitabine, a prodrug of 5-FU, can cause hand-foot syndrome, which is characterized by redness, swelling, and pain on the palms and soles.

32. Which drug is used in the treatment of HER2-positive breast cancer?

A) Tamoxifen
B) Trastuzumab
C) Methotrexate
D) Cisplatin
Answer: B) Trastuzumab
Explanation: Trastuzumab (Herceptin) targets the HER2 receptor and is used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer.

33. Which of the following is an example of a targeted therapy in chemotherapy?

A) Methotrexate
B) Bevacizumab
C) Doxorubicin
D) Paclitaxel
Answer: B) Bevacizumab
Explanation: Bevacizumab is an anti-VEGF antibody that inhibits tumor blood vessel growth, making it a form of targeted therapy.

34. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely to cause severe anemia?

A) Methotrexate
B) Paclitaxel
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Cisplatin
Answer: B) Paclitaxel
Explanation: Paclitaxel can cause severe anemia by affecting the bone marrow’s ability to produce red blood cells.

35. What is the main adverse effect of 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)?

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Severe nausea and vomiting
D) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: A) Hepatotoxicity
Explanation: 6-Mercaptopurine is associated with hepatotoxicity, and liver function should be monitored during therapy.

36. Which of the following is a late effect of chemotherapy?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Hair loss
C) Secondary malignancy
D) Myelosuppression
Answer: C) Secondary malignancy
Explanation: Late effects of chemotherapy, such as secondary malignancy, may arise years after treatment.

37. What is the first-line treatment for metastatic testicular cancer?

A) Methotrexate
B) BEP (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) regimen
C) Paclitaxel
D) Tamoxifen
Answer: B) BEP (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) regimen
Explanation: The BEP regimen is the standard treatment for metastatic testicular cancer.

38. Which chemotherapy agent is used in the treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A) Vincristine
B) Doxorubicin
C) Bleomycin
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: The combination of vincristine, doxorubicin, and bleomycin (ABVD regimen) is commonly used for Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

39. Which chemotherapy drug can cause the side effect of ‘red urine’?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Doxorubicin
C) Methotrexate
D) Paclitaxel
Answer: B) Doxorubicin
Explanation: Doxorubicin can cause red-colored urine due to its red pigmentation, which is harmless but alarming to patients.

40. Which of the following drugs can be used to treat advanced colorectal cancer?

A) Cetuximab
B) Paclitaxel
C) Vincristine
D) Tamoxifen
Answer: A) Cetuximab
Explanation: Cetuximab is an epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor used in the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer.

41. What is the primary use of rituximab in chemotherapy?

A) Treat breast cancer
B) Treat non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C) Prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea
D) Treat ovarian cancer
Answer: B) Treat non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation: Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used primarily to treat non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

42. Which of the following agents is a monoclonal antibody used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer?

A) Trastuzumab
B) Methotrexate
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Bleomycin
Answer: A) Trastuzumab
Explanation: Trastuzumab targets the HER2 receptor, which is overexpressed in certain breast cancers, making it an effective treatment.

43. Which class of drugs does etoposide belong to?

A) Antimetabolites
B) Topoisomerase II inhibitors
C) Platinum analogs
D) Vinca alkaloids
Answer: B) Topoisomerase II inhibitors
Explanation: Etoposide is a topoisomerase II inhibitor that prevents DNA from being repaired, leading to cell death.

44. What is the role of granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) in chemotherapy?

A) Enhance drug efficacy
B) Stimulate red blood cell production
C) Prevent alopecia
D) Stimulate white blood cell production
Answer: D) Stimulate white blood cell production
Explanation: G-CSF is used to increase white blood cell counts after chemotherapy-induced neutropenia.

45. Which of the following is a risk factor for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?

A) High emetogenic chemotherapy agents
B) Female gender
C) History of motion sickness
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Factors like the type of chemotherapy, gender, and history of nausea or motion sickness increase the risk of CINV.

46. Which chemotherapy drug can cause “chemo brain,” characterized by memory loss and difficulty concentrating?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Methotrexate
C) Doxorubicin
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: “Chemo brain” is a common term for cognitive changes seen after chemotherapy, which can affect memory, focus, and concentration.

47. What is the standard treatment for early-stage breast cancer?

A) Chemotherapy alone
B) Chemotherapy and radiation
C) Surgery and radiation
D) Surgery and hormone therapy
Answer: D) Surgery and hormone therapy
Explanation: Surgery to remove the tumor, followed by hormone therapy if the tumor is hormone receptor-positive, is standard for early-stage breast cancer.

48. Which of the following is used in the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Cytarabine
C) Methotrexate
D) Vincristine
Answer: B) Cytarabine
Explanation: Cytarabine is one of the main drugs used in the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia (AML).

49. Which chemotherapy drug is a folate antagonist?

A) Methotrexate
B) 5-fluorouracil
C) Paclitaxel
D) Vincristine
Answer: A) Methotrexate
Explanation: Methotrexate is a folate antagonist that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, a key enzyme in folate metabolism.

50. Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause severe myelosuppression?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Doxorubicin
C) Methotrexate
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: All of these chemotherapy agents can cause myelosuppression, leading to a reduction in blood cell production, particularly white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

 

51. Which of the following is a common side effect of cyclophosphamide?

A) Cardiotoxicity
B) Hemorrhagic cystitis
C) Ototoxicity
D) Nephrotoxicity
Answer: B) Hemorrhagic cystitis
Explanation: Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition where the bladder becomes inflamed and bleeds. This can be prevented with adequate hydration and sometimes the use of mesna.

52. What is the mechanism of action of gemcitabine?

A) Inhibition of microtubules
B) Inhibition of DNA polymerase
C) DNA incorporation and chain termination
D) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
Answer: C) DNA incorporation and chain termination
Explanation: Gemcitabine is a nucleoside analog that gets incorporated into the DNA, causing chain termination and preventing further DNA replication.

53. Which chemotherapy agent is commonly associated with nephrotoxicity?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Cisplatin
D) Methotrexate
Answer: C) Cisplatin
Explanation: Cisplatin is known for its nephrotoxicity. It can cause kidney damage, so renal function is closely monitored during treatment.

54. Which of the following drugs is used as a chemoprotectant against cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis?

A) Mesna
B) Granisetron
C) Filgrastim
D) Leucovorin
Answer: A) Mesna
Explanation: Mesna is used to protect the bladder from the toxic effects of cyclophosphamide, specifically to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis.

55. Which of the following is used in the treatment of ovarian cancer?

A) Paclitaxel and carboplatin
B) Vincristine and methotrexate
C) Cyclophosphamide and doxorubicin
D) Tamoxifen and letrozole
Answer: A) Paclitaxel and carboplatin
Explanation: The combination of paclitaxel and carboplatin is commonly used for the treatment of ovarian cancer.

56. Which of the following is a common side effect of methotrexate?

A) Hair loss
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Ototoxicity
Answer: B) Hepatotoxicity
Explanation: Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, especially with high doses or prolonged use. Liver function is regularly monitored.

57. Which chemotherapy agent is most likely to cause cardiotoxicity?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Paclitaxel
C) Methotrexate
D) Cyclophosphamide
Answer: A) Doxorubicin
Explanation: Doxorubicin is associated with cardiotoxicity, particularly at higher cumulative doses. It can lead to heart failure and cardiomyopathy.

58. Which chemotherapy drug is a major cause of peripheral neuropathy?

A) Vincristine
B) 5-Fluorouracil
C) Doxorubicin
D) Cisplatin
Answer: A) Vincristine
Explanation: Vincristine, a vinca alkaloid, can cause peripheral neuropathy, which presents as numbness, tingling, or pain in the extremities.

59. What is the role of leucovorin in chemotherapy?

A) To enhance the effect of methotrexate
B) To prevent hemorrhagic cystitis
C) To reverse the toxicity of 5-fluorouracil
D) To stimulate white blood cell production
Answer: A) To enhance the effect of methotrexate
Explanation: Leucovorin is used as a “rescue” agent to enhance the efficacy of methotrexate by providing a source of reduced folate, which can bypass the blockage caused by methotrexate.

60. Which of the following drugs is most effective against Hodgkin lymphoma?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Rituximab
C) ABVD regimen (Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine)
D) Capecitabine
Answer: C) ABVD regimen (Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine)
Explanation: The ABVD regimen is a first-line chemotherapy regimen for Hodgkin lymphoma.

61. Which drug is used to treat chemotherapy-induced anemia?

A) Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA)
B) Mesna
C) G-CSF
D) Allopurinol
Answer: A) Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA)
Explanation: ESAs like epoetin alfa are used to treat chemotherapy-induced anemia by stimulating the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.

62. What is the primary use of topotecan?

A) Treatment of non-small cell lung cancer
B) Treatment of ovarian cancer
C) Treatment of small cell lung cancer
D) Treatment of testicular cancer
Answer: C) Treatment of small cell lung cancer
Explanation: Topotecan is a topoisomerase I inhibitor used in the treatment of small cell lung cancer.

63. Which chemotherapy agent is a platinum-based drug?

A) Cyclophosphamide
B) Cisplatin
C) Doxorubicin
D) Methotrexate
Answer: B) Cisplatin
Explanation: Cisplatin is a platinum-based chemotherapy drug commonly used to treat various cancers, including testicular and ovarian cancer.

64. Which chemotherapy drug is associated with a risk of fetal harm and should be avoided in pregnancy?

A) Methotrexate
B) Vincristine
C) Doxorubicin
D) Paclitaxel
Answer: A) Methotrexate
Explanation: Methotrexate is teratogenic and should be avoided in pregnancy due to its potential to cause fetal harm.

65. Which drug is commonly used to treat advanced melanoma?

A) Pembrolizumab
B) Methotrexate
C) Doxorubicin
D) Rituximab
Answer: A) Pembrolizumab
Explanation: Pembrolizumab is a PD-1 inhibitor used as an immune checkpoint inhibitor for the treatment of advanced melanoma.

66. Which of the following drugs can cause myelosuppression?

A) 5-Fluorouracil
B) Methotrexate
C) Vincristine
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: All of these drugs can cause myelosuppression, which is a decrease in the production of blood cells in the bone marrow.

67. Which of the following is the primary treatment for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

A) Imatinib (Gleevec)
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Methotrexate
D) Rituximab
Answer: A) Imatinib (Gleevec)
Explanation: Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets the BCR-ABL fusion protein, making it the standard treatment for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML).

68. What is the purpose of using filgrastim during chemotherapy?

A) To treat anemia
B) To stimulate white blood cell production
C) To prevent nausea and vomiting
D) To treat neuropathy
Answer: B) To stimulate white blood cell production
Explanation: Filgrastim is a growth factor that stimulates the production of neutrophils to help reduce the risk of infection in chemotherapy patients.

69. Which chemotherapy drug is associated with causing significant alopecia (hair loss)?

A) Methotrexate
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Paclitaxel
D) Capecitabine
Answer: C) Paclitaxel
Explanation: Paclitaxel is known for causing significant hair loss due to its effect on the microtubules in cells.

70. Which chemotherapy drug is often used in combination with rituximab for the treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A) Doxorubicin
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Methotrexate
D) Paclitaxel
Answer: B) Cyclophosphamide
Explanation: The combination of rituximab and cyclophosphamide is commonly used for the treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.